hbgold ([info]hbgold) wrote,
@ 2007-03-10 12:21:00
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Racist Thoughts From a Legal Mind
I am a lawyer. Apparently I am also a racist. On this particular subject, I am ok with that. In our state Judges are elected. Last November, in virtually every contested judicial race in our County, a Democrat was elected, displacing a Republican who had long held the job. I don't care whether a judge is Democrat or Republican. I am more concerned that the Judge know the law and know what needs to be done in managing the docket.

In yesterdays Dallas Morning News there was an article that a newly elected Judge had set aside a Motion that had been filed by the Plaintiff, Citibank. This is a credit card debt case. A not infrequent type of case. Here, the Defendant, the credit card customer, was in default of his obligation to the tune of about $15,000.00. The Defendant, who claims that he does not speak English, did not have an attorney. He had filed an Answer, in English. The Plaintiff, Citibank, had filed a Motion for Summary Judgment. In this Motion, the movant demonstrates that there is no geniune issue of material fact, and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. In other words, there is no question about the facts and one side or another is entitled to judgment without a trial. The Defendant did not file a response, and the Motion was granted. The Defendant then showed up and said, hey, that's not right, I didn't know that I needed to file a response, and Citibank should have translated the pleadings into Spanish so that I could understand them. The Judge agreed.

This is outrageous for more than one reason. First, putting the Motion into Spanish still wouldn't have told the Defendant what needed to be done. To know what to do, you need to review the Texas Rules of Civil Procedure. The Defendant didn't know what to do because (a) he is not a lawyer and (b) he did not undertake the effort to understand the rules, which the law requires if you are going to represent yourself. This had nothing to do with Spanish; it had everything to do with not following the rules. There are lots of people who choose to represent themselves, who speak only English, who don't read the rules and they don't get a special break. So this obviously had nothing to do with not understanding and following the rules. BUT, more importantly, there is no requirement that one party translate documents for another. Rather, under the rules it is the responsibility of the party who uses another language to get an interpreter. This too the Defendant did not do. Finally, there is no requirement in my state that Court proceedings be conducted in a language other than English, nor should there be. I am tired, particularly of the Hispanic community, saying that we need to change the rules for them. I went to school and studied law. I do not want to go to school to study Spanish (which, though my public school instilled in me from grades 3 through 12, with 4 more semesters in College and 2 stints in Berlitz I still cannot speak fluently). My client does not have to incur the expense to learn Spanish or to translate public documents into Spanish because you entered into an agreement to pay a debt, and then breached the agreement. If this country presents opportunities that draw others here, then you need to take the opportunity on the terms on which it is available - including the obligation to speak English. I am not interested in a society fractured by language and culture. We have Iraq for that (or Canada if you like a cooler climate).

People have been coming to American for over 200 years and have been able to maintain their culture while adopting the language for common purposes. We don't need a bilingual court system. If that makes me a racist, I proudly wear that badge.


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Some good points here, but Spanish has long been established in Texas
(Anonymous)
2007-03-11 11:29 am UTC (link)
Hbgold, I agree with your first point here but not your second. You're right, using the unavailability of those rules in Spanish is a poor excuse-- if this is Texas then there's a good chance those statutes have Spanish versions, the point is, the defendant in this case made no effort to access them in any language.

As for the second point-- "People have been coming to American for over 200 years and have been able to maintain their culture while adopting the language for common purposes. We don't need a bilingual court system. If that makes me a racist, I proudly wear that badge."

I'm sorry, but this doesn't hold water in Texas, California or other Southwestern states, or in Florida. I sympathize with where you're coming from on one level, but as I've learned the hard way, Spanish has a very ancient, entrenched status in these states that's very deep-rooted. The USA has never had an official language or a national language and with good reason-- the Founding Fathers needed to maintain peace with other societies and cultures that already had established cultures in the territory that became the United States.

In the Founders' case, this generally meant the native Americans, and as a result, native American languages have special protections under the law. But this also came to apply to Spanish after the Florida wars and especially the bloody Mexican War, a very ugly affair that colors the entire history of the Southwest. The treaties and the laws that came into force after the Mexican War provided special protections for Spanish to help maintain some semblance of an uneasy peace in the midst of the bitterness of the war, again for good reason-- Spanish has been established there for centuries before English came along, just as it is in Puerto Rico. So in Texas among other places, Spanish isn't an "immigrant" language and a newcomer, it's an already well-established language in the state that even preceded English there.

When I moved to Arizona, I got in some trouble in my job because I refused to learn Spanish for it, I thought it was an annoying imposition. But over time, I really came to realize that it was basic to the history and character of the state. And fortunately, it's pretty easy to learn. In many places, you just have to know it.

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(Anonymous)
2007-03-24 07:43 pm UTC (link)
"People have been coming to American for over 200 years and have been able to maintain their culture while adopting the language for common purposes. We don't need a bilingual court system. If that makes me a racist, I proudly wear that badge."

I guess that makes me racist as well. I came to America in the mid 70s and I spoke a smattering of English; not very well but enough to get my point across. I have a Spanish surname so when my father enrolled me in school I was placed in B level or ESL(read-Spanish driven) classes - my father protested. How was I supposed to learn English if I was not placed in classes taught in English? I didn't speak Spanish so that wasn't going to help me either. Didn't make sense at all. My father made a deal with the Guidance Counselor--keep me in the B classes for the first quarter; if I get A's in the class, I was to be moved to A levels. Guess what -- I ranked 10th in my graduating class of 450 after only 3 years in America.

There is no excuse for not learning the language, practices, culture of a country you choose to emigrate to. I get really frustrated whenever I hear about special treatments such as this just because one only speaks Spanish. I wonder if the judge's decision would have still been the same had the defendant been Vietnamese or Dutch. If allowances are going to be made for one "language" then allowances should be made for all. I can just imagine the amount of paperwork generate. That would certainly speed up the process...NOT!

MK

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